FAQs | islam

Response to the verses, which Christians bring up to show Jesus claimed Divinity.

1. I and my Father are one.
2. “Before Abraham was I am”
3. “I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.”
4. “he that hath seen me hath seen the Father” John 14:9
5. “In the beginning was the word, the word was with God and the word was God.”
6. “That all men should honour the Son, even as they honour the Father”
7. Thomas said “My Lord, and my God”
8. “I am Alpha and Omega”

When you ask Christians to show one verse where Jesus (pbuh) claimed divinity while doing Dawah.

The Christians come up with certain verses from the Bible to show that Jesus claimed to be divine. As

far as I know, there are about 8 verses which the Christians usually bring up. I’ll reply to them here.

1. I and my Father are one.

John 10:30, I and My Father are One
Often when debates come up with Christians on the divinity of Christ, the passage from chapter ten in

the book of John comes up; this passage is verse 30, which basically reads:

30 I and my Father are one

Now I don’t understand why many Christians would quote this verse, specifically Trinitarians, because what does this verse prove? Trinitarians do not believe Jesus is the Father, so why do they quote it? Are they quoting it to try and show that Jesus is equal to the Father? Well that isn’t true, since the Gospel of John shows the opposite, in fact if we quote one verse back we read:

29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.

This is verse 29, it comes right before verse 30, and in verse 29 Jesus says the Father is greater than ALL, this obviously includes Jesus since he is not the Father. So therefore how to Christians try and assume that this verse shows equality between Jesus and the Father is beyond me, just a verse before it Jesus says the Father is greater than everyone!

In fact this is not the first time that Jesus says the Father is greater than him, he does it again later:

28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I (John 14:28)

So here we once again have Jesus claiming the Father is greater than him, so how is Jesus equal to the Father when Jesus says the contrary? Now Christians have come up with a way of trying to explain this verse off, they say that Jesus was talking as a man here, that as a man the Father is greater than him, they try and say that the Father meant he is greater than Jesus in rank and authority and not in essence.

However so what did Jesus mean in John 10 when Jesus said the Father is greater than ALL? Jesus placed himself in the category of ALL people, so therefore the Christian response will not work for John 10:29. It must be said though that the Christian response does not work for John chapter 14:28 neither, because the Christian argues from silence and is arguing something they have yet to prove. Christians cannot prove that Jesus has 2 natures, they can never get a single quote from the lips of Jesus saying I am man and Divine, that I have 2 natures and I gave one up and took on the man nature, this is non-existent, so therefore the response is from silence provided with no proof or a solid basis.

1-The fact is the Bible shows that the Father is greater than Jesus in essence, the Father is all-knowing and Jesus is not.

2-The Father gives Jesus everything from miracle to doctrine.

3-Jesus begs the Father to save him, obviously showing that life and death is controlled by the Father and NOT Jesus.

For all these arguments the Christian will say as man Jesus is not all-knowing, as man Jesus receives things from the Father, however so I will kindly ask the Christian bring this proof from the words of Jesus, they shall never be able to do it, this doctrine is an invention and not something to be found from Jesus.

So therefore in conclusion, John 10:30 proves nothing in support of the divinity of Jesus, it does not show equality, since Jesus made it clear that the Father is greater than him, so therefore Jesus is not equal with the Father.

“21 That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us:” (John 17:21)

“One” used in both the verses John 10:30 and John 17:21 is the same

Its “heis” hice

Now if someone insists that it is One in a trinity than you should change trinity into another concept meaning 14 gods. God Almighty, Jesus (pbuh) and twelve disciples.

Lets read after verse 30. John verses 31-35

31 Again the Jews picked up stones to stone him,

The Jews wanted to kill him for good riddance. Jesus (pbuh) gives the reply.

32 but Jesus said to them, "I have shown you many great miracles from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?"

33 "We are not stoning you for any of these," replied the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.

This is the second charge by the Jews that Jesus (pbuh) claimed divinity and anyone who blasphemes should be put to death according to the Jewish Law (Leviticus 24:16). But Jesus (pbuh) gives them the answer.

"34 Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are gods'?

He is quoting from Psalms 82:6

Psalm 82:6 "I said, 'You are "gods"; you are all sons of the Most High.'

John 10:35 If he called them 'gods,' to whom the word of God came-- and the Scripture cannot be broken--

Jesus (pbuh) is telling them that in the language of the Jews. Prophets are called as “god.” (Exodus 7:1) Other people are called as “gods” and you do not take exception to it than why do you take exception when I am making a far inferior claim of being the son of God.

This explanation is sufficient to prove that Jesus (pbuh) did NOT claim divinity when he said, “I and my Father are one”

2. “Before Abraham was I am”

This is another quotation which the Christians bring to show the divinity of Jesus. Its from John 8:58.

Lets analyze this verse.

“Jesus said unto them, Verily,verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.” (John 8:58)

The reasons Christians give that Christ (pbuh) claimed divinity here are:

A. Jesus existed before Abraham.

B.“I am” is the name of God in the Bible (Exodus 3:14)

Lets analyze both the reasons.

If Jesus (pbuh) existed before Abraham that does not make him God in anyway because even angels existed before Abraham. They existed before the world was created. Does it make them God? No ! Jesus (pbuh) was with God before Abraham (pbuh) , but in what form? Was he like a handsome young man moving around and then God reduced him to a small baby and put him in his mother’s womb? No No ! It means in the knowledge of God we all were there. Jeremiah is said to have been made a Prophet before his birth. The Bible says

“Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee; and before thou camest forth out of the womb I sanctified thee, and I ordained thee a prophet unto the nations.” (Jeremiah 1:5)

In Islam, we share somewhat a similar belief. The Quran says

“When thy Lord drew forth from the Children of Adam - from their loins - their descendants, and made them testify concerning themselves, (saying): "Am I not your Lord (who cherishes and sustains you)?"- They said: "Yea! We do testify!" (This), lest ye should say on the Day of Judgment: "Of this we were never mindful":(Quran 7:172)

The Christians claim that “I am” is the name of God in the Bible in Exodus 3:14. The verse reads

“And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.” (Exodus 3:14)

“Jesus said unto them, Verily,verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, God ( I am.)”

We have no objection in agreeing that God was there before Abraham.

If Jesus was claiming divinity here. He should have at least remained consistent in the usage of words. In Exodus 3:14 the word for “I am” is “haw-yaw’ Where as the word in John 8:58 is “Ego Eimi”

This is sufficient to prove that in John 8:58 Jesus did not claim divinity.

3. “I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.”

John 14:6 Jesus said "I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me." Does that make him GOD?

Before we start: Please visit Jesus saying "I am the way and the truth and the life..." doesn't prove that he is the Creator of the Universe. Jesus promised and guaranteed Paradise to non-trinitarians.

Some people read: "I am the way, ...no one comes to the Father, but through me."

When reading this verse, for some reason some people see in it a confirmation of the Trinity. Although I can not see how they can read either an explicit or even an implicit reference to the Trinity in this verse, still, due to it's popularity it deserves to be studied

There appear to be a sizable number of Christians who when reading this verse interpret it to state that Jesus is God and that no one shall enter into heaven except if they worship Jesus. However, since it is brought up so often in discussions of the Trinity it appears to be appropriate to discuss it here.

The popular perception that this verse claims that Jesus requires our worship in order for us to receive salvation is not the intended meaning of this verse. However, in order for us to recognize this fact it is necessary to study it's context.

If we were to back up a little and read from the beginning of this chapter, we would find that just before Jesus spoke these words, he said;

"In my Father's house are many mansions (dwelling places); if it were not so, I would have told you; for I go to prepare a mansion (a dwelling place) for you."

John 14:2 The above statement is quite clear. It is in exact conformance to the teachings of the Qur'an. In the Qur'an we are told how God sent messengers to all tribes and nations. We are told that the basic message which was given to each of these tribes was the same: "Worship God alone and worship none else." Some of the secondary details of this worship might differ from one tribe or nation to the next according to God's infinite wisdom and his knowledge of those people. It was made very clear to each prophet that he was not to preach to anyone but his own people. It was further made clear to this messenger's people that if they were to obey him that they would receive the reward of God. God would not hold them accountable for what any other tribe or nation did or did not do. This would continue until God's last messenger, Muhammad (pbuh) would be sent to all mankind as the seal of the prophets.

This is exactly what Jesus is saying here. He said that in God's mansion there are "many" rooms. Jesus was sent to guide to only one of them. The countless other rooms were reserved for other tribes and nations if they would obey their messengers. However, Jesus was telling his followers that they need not worry themselves about the other rooms. Anyone from among his people who wished to enter into the room which was reserved for them could only do so if they followed Jesus and obeyed his command. So Jesus confirmed that he was going to prepare "a" mansion and not "all" the mansions in "my Father's house".

Further, the verse clearly states that Jesus was the "WAY" to a mansion. He did not say that he is the "DESTINATION" which would be the case if he were God. What else would we expect a prophet of God to say except "I am the 'way' to God's mercy"? That is his job. That is what a prophet does. It is why God chose him in the first place; in order to guide to the mercy of God. This is indeed confirmed in John 10:9 where Jesus tells us that he is "the door" to "the pasture." In other words, he is the "prophet" who guides his people to "heaven" (see also Jn. 12:44). Once again, this is the message of Islam.

Finally, remember

"Not every one that says to me(Jesus); 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven; but he who does the will of my Father, who is in heaven."

Matthew.7:21

4. “he that hath seen me hath seen the Father” John 14:9

Lets read the verses in context.

¹"Do not let your hearts be troubled. Trust in God; trust also in me.

²In my Father's house are many rooms; if it were not so, I would have told you. I am going there to prepare a place for you.

³And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and take you to be with me that you also may be where I am.

⁴You know the way to the place where I am going."

⁵Thomas said to him, "Lord, we don't know where you are going, so how can we know the way?" (John 14:1-5)

In context we read that Jesus Christ (pbuh) is talking about God Almighty. Verse 2 gives the answer. Jesus says “In my FATHER’S house”. He is talking about going to paradise, he is talking about spiritual matters, they are thinking of some geographical location. So Jesus (pbuh) gives the reply.

“⁶Jesus answered, "I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.” (John 14:6)

He is the way to God. Every Prophet during his time was the way to God. At the time of Moses (pbuh) he was the way to God. The Children of Israel chose another way through golden calf, it wasn’t accepted from them. At the time of Noah (pbuh) he was the way to God. If you had to get saves, just get into the ark, that’s all ! At the time of Jesus (pbuh) he was the way to God. But today, it’s the time of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh), he is the way to Almighty God.

⁷If you really knew me, you would know my Father as well. From now on, you do know him and have seen him." (John 14:7)

Here Jesus (pbuh) is saying that if you know me, you know God i.e. if you follow me, you are indirectly following Almighty God. Seeing God here means knowing God as we can see from the verse.

⁸Philip said, "Lord, show us the Father and that will be enough for us." (John 14:8)

Here Philip is asking Jesus (pbuh) to show him God. The Bible says

“No one has ever seen God” (John 1:18)

“But," he (God) said, "you cannot see my face, for no one may see me and live." (Exodus 33:20)

Note : The word “God” in bracket is mine.

Being a Jew, he knew that no man can see God and live, making such an absurd request to Jesus (pbuh) of showing the father. So Jesus (pbuh) replies

⁹Jesus answered: "Don't you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'? (John 14:9)

Jesus (pbuh) is saying to Phillips that he had been with him for so long and still making such an silly request of showing God, so Jesus says that “Anyone who has seen me has seen the father” meaning if you know me, you know Almighty God as well. You follow my teachings; you are following the teachings of Almighty God.

In context, we come to know that anyone who knows Jesus (pbuh) i.e. anyone who follows Jesus (pbuh) is indirectly following Almighty God to which we have no objection. Verses 1-2 give the context.

5. “In the beginning was the word, the word was with God and the word was God.”

The above statement is from John 1:1

First of all, to remind the Christians that it is NOT Jesus Christ (pbuh) speaking here. So this statement is just made by some other person. Its not the statement of Jesus (pbuh). Let me reveal some deception in the Biblical Translation here.

“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God , and the Word was God.” (John 1:1)

The word used for God in this verse is “theos”.

The Europeans have evolved a system, they put a capital “G” for God when they refer to Almighty God and put a small “g” when referring to some other deity. When they speak about Hindu and Greek gods and goddesses they put a small “g”.

When the Christians speak about Jesus (pbuh). They put a capital “G”, when the same word “theos” is used for somebody else, the Christians put a small “g”. Consider the following.

“⁴The god (theos) of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers,” (II Corinthians 4:4)

The same word “theos” is used here, which is used in John 1:1. But the Christians have put a small “g” here. Take another example.

“¹⁹Their destiny is destruction, their god (theos) is their stomach,” (Philippians 3:19)

Again, they have put a small “g” when translating for something/somebody else. However, the King James Version is honest in translating Philippians 3:19. The above translation is from NIV.

So we see from the above examples, the deception of the Biblical Translators. When it comes to Jesus (pbuh), they translate the word “theos” as “God”. Consider one more example.

“⁸But about the Son he says, "Your throne, O God (theos), will last for ever and ever, and righteousness will be the scepter of your kingdom.” (Hebrews 1:8)

Again, when it is referring to Jesus (pbuh), they put a capital “G”.

This deception is not only there in the New Testament, but it is also there in the Old Testament.

“¹ In the beginning God (elohim) created the heavens and the earth.” (Genesis 1:1)

When it is referring to Almighty God. They have used a capital “G” But when it refers to somebody else, they put a small “g”

⁶ "I said, 'You are "gods" (elohim); you are all sons of the Most High.' (Psalms 82:6)

However, this deception is also there in Exodus 7:1 in the King James Version. They put a small “g” when referring to Moses (pbuh), but NIV has put a capital “G”.

6. “That all men should honour the Son, even as they honour the Father”

The above statement is from John 5:23.

The Christians bring up this statement to show that Jesus (pbuh) is divine. Let us analyze the verse and see what did Jesus (pbuh) actually mean when he said those words.

That all men should honour the Son, even as they honour the Father. He that honoureth not the Son honoureth not the Father which hath sent him. (John 5:23)

So we see that Jesus (pbuh) is saying that anyone who doesn’t honour the son does not honour the father. That is True! If you do not honour Jesus (pbuh), indirectly you do nothonour Almighty God. If you do not follow his message, you do not follow the message of Almighty God.

The next verse makes it clearer

“Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.” (John 5:24)

So we see here that Jesus (pbuh) is saying that if you hear his word and believe in “HIM THAT SENT ME” i.e. Almighty God, then you will have everlasting life. So we see that honoring Jesus (pbuh) simply means to believe in him. The doctrine that he gave was not his it was of God.

“…and the word which ye hear is NOT mine, but the Father's which sent me” (John 14:24)

So if anyone believes in Jesus (pbuh) and follows his word, he follows Almighty God. The Quran tells us the same thing.

“Say: "If ye do love Allah, Follow me: Allah will love you and forgive you your sins: For Allah is Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful." (Quran 3:31)

Here Almighty God is commanding Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) to say to the people, that if you love Almighty God than follow the Prophet Muhammad (pbuh).

Same is said by Jesus Christ (pbuh), that if you do not believe in Jesus (pbuh), if you do not honour him, you do not believe in Almighty God, you do not honour Almighty God.

If someone still insists that Jesus (pbuh) is here claiming to be equal to God, then Jesus (pbuh) himself refutes such a thing. He says

“….for my Father is greater than I.” (John 14:28)

“My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all…” (John 10:29)

Hence, we can see that Jesus (pbuh) did not claim divinity here.

7. Thomas said “My Lord, and my God”

The above statement is from (John 20:28)

Firstly, this statement is not of Jesus (pbuh). It is of Thomas. Let us read the verse in context.

John 20 ²⁰After he said this, he showed them his hands and side. The disciples were overjoyed when they saw the Lord.

²¹Again Jesus said, "Peace be with you! As the Father has sent me, I am sending you." ²²And with that he breathed on them and said, "Receive the Holy Spirit. ²³If you forgive anyone his sins, they are forgiven; if you do not forgive them, they are not forgiven."

²⁴Now Thomas (called Didymus), one of the Twelve, was not with the disciples when Jesus came. ²⁵So the other disciples told him, "We have seen the Lord!"
But he said to them, "Unless I see the nail marks in his hands and put my finger where the nails were, and put my hand into his side, I will not believe it."

So we see, that after the alleged crucifixion of Jesus (pbuh). The disciples had seen Jesus (pbuh) alive. Thomas did not believe that. So he demanded to see the nail marks in his hands and put his finger where the nails were and put his side into his side.

²⁶A week later his disciples were in the house again, and Thomas was with them. Though the doors were locked, Jesus came and stood among them and said, "Peace be with you!" ²⁷Then he (Jesus) said to Thomas,"Put your finger here; see my hands. Reach out your hand and put it into my side. Stop doubting and believe."

Thomas doubted that Jesus (pbuh) was alive, so Jesus (pbuh) shows him his hands and asks him to put his hand into his (Jesus’s) side and stop doubting and believe that he is still Alive. This was surprising to Thomas, So Thomas exclaimed.

“²⁸Thomas said to him, "My Lord and my God!"

This was a mere exclamation by Thomas. In day-to-day life, we utter things like “Oh My God! What have I done?” “Oh My God ! Its so late” Does it mean I am calling my hearer a God?

²⁹Then Jesus told him, "Because you have seen me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed."

Believed what? Believed that he is God? No !! Believe that Jesus (pbuh) is still alive and NOT dead. Din’t Thomas see Jesus (pbuh) before the alleged “crucifixion”? Of course he did ! If Jesus meant, that you have believe that I am God, so why is Jesus saying that you have seen me and believe? He had already seen him before.

This explanation is sufficient to Prove that Jesus (pbuh) did not claim divinity. It was only an exclamation by Thomas.

8. “I am Alpha and Omega”

The above quotation if from Revelation 1:8.

When Muslims corner Christians on the subject “Is Jesus God”? Christians often try to prove the divinity of Jesus by quoting the passage from the Revelation that Jesus said, “I am Alpha and the Omega”. However, this argument is soundly refuted:

Now personally I want to draw the attention of the Christians in another passage of the Bible, in the book of Hebrews we read:

Chapter 7:1

1. For this Melchisedec, king of Salem, priest of the most high God, who met Abraham returning from the slaughter of the kings, and blessed him;

2. To whom also Abraham gave a tenth part of all; first being by interpretation King of righteousness, and after that also King of Salem, which is, King of peace;

3. Without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life; but made like unto the Son of God; abideth a priest continually. ( Hebrews 7:13)

Notice this Priest Melchisedec “has neither beginning of days, nor end of life”, in other words very logically we can say that this statement is much more superior than the statement supposed uttered by Jesus (that he is Alpha and the Omega). Because alpha and Omega has a beginning and end but this Priest Melchisedec has no beginning and no end, therefore why Christians don’t consider this Priest as God Almighty? Because his superiority from Jesus is not only for his eternal existence but also because he does not have a mother, Jesus had a mother, and he does not have a descent, Jesus had descents (two genealogies according to the gospels). So when Christians try to prove the divinity of Jesus by the statement “Iam Alpha and Omega” I advise them to better look the statement of Melchisedec which is much more superior than Jesus. However, Christians do not support that Melchisedec is God. So there is no big deal when Jesus said I am Alpha and the Omega.

Assuming this statement is made by Jesus, book of Revelation is a dream of John. Suppose if a person sees in a dream that Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) claims divinity. Does it mean he really claimed to be divine? No ! Similarly, this is only a dream of John. Book of Revelation also talks about things like:

¹And the dragon stood on the shore of the sea. And I saw a beast coming out of the sea. He had ten horns and seven heads, with ten crowns on his horns, and on each head a blasphemous name. ²The beast I saw resembled a leopard, but had feet like those of a bear and a mouth like that of a lion. (Revelation 13:1-2)

Do Christians believe in these things?

http://www.answering-christianity.com/yahya_ahmed/jesus_divinity.htm

CHRISTMAS

The word “Christmas” is derived from the combination of two words:

“Christ” and “Mass”.

“Christ” denotes Jesus Christ.

“Mass” means “Celebrations” or “Feast” (In Arabic “Eid”).

“Christmas” therefore means “Christ’s Feast” (not birthday). Anyway, it is meant to be the feast of the birthday of Jesus Christ (Pbuh).

In the Oxford Dictionary we find the meaning of Christmas as:

“Yearly celebration of the birth of Jesus Christ, 25 December.”

In the Abingdon Dictionary of Living Religions (USA 1981) the meaning is:

“The festival commemorating the birth of Jesus at Bethlehem, observed on December 25 (except by Armenians).”

IT’S ORIGIN OR HISTORY:

The word Christmas is not found anywhere in any Bible (any version) nor is there any authentic record in the Christian sources to show that 25th December was the birthday of Jesus Christ (Pbuh) and no one is recorded to have celebrated or kept a feast or held a great banquet on his birthday.

It is only sinners like Pharaoh and Herod, who make great rejoicing over the day in which they were born in to the world.

1. In the Catholic Encyclopedia, 1911 Edition, published by the Roman Catholic Church under the heading “Christmas” it says:

“Christmas was not among the earliest festivals of the Church….The first evidence of the feast is from Egypt….Pagan customs centering around the January calends (the 1st day of the ancient Roman month) gravitated to Christmas.” In the same encyclopedia under the caption “Natal Day”, we find that the early Catholic Father, Origen acknowledged this truth.

2. The Encyclopedia Britannica, 1946 Edition, has this to report:

“Christmas (the mass of Christ) was not among the earliest festivals of the Church.”It was not instituted by Christ or the apostles or by Bible authority, but from paganism.

3. The Encyclopedia Americana 1944 Edition says:

“Christmas according to many authorities was not celebrated in the first centuries of the Christian Church, as the Christian usage in general was to celebrate the death of remarkable persons than their birth.” It further states: “A feast was established in memory of this event (Christ’s birth) in the fourth century. In the fifth century, the western church ordered it to be celebrated forever, on the day of the Old Roman Feast of the birth of Sol, as no certain knowledge of the day of Christ’s birth existed.” “Sol” means, “Sun” not “Son.”

4. The New Schaff-Herzog Encyclopedia of Religious Knowledge explains:

“How much the date of the festival depended upon the pagan Brumalia (Dec 25), following the Saturnalia (Dec 17-24), and celebrating the shortest day of the year and the ‘New Sun’ …cannot be accurately determined. The pagan Saturnalia and Brumalia were too deeply entrenched in popular custom to be set aside by Christian influences….The pagan festival with it’s riot and merrymaking was so popular that Christians were glad of an excuse to continue it’s celebration with little change in spirit and manner.”

These recognized authorities show very clearly that Christmas was not observed by the Original Christians for the first three hundred years, a period longer than the entire history of United States as a nation!

The historical records indicate that Christmas was originally a pagan and heathen celebration, later introduced in to Christianity. It had nothing to do with any Semitic religion.

Of the major Christian festivals, Christmas is the most recent in origin. The name Christmas did not come in to use until the Middle Ages.

In it’s early history, the Church had an annual observance of honor on the death of Christ and many other early Martyrs.

A festival on December 25th was established by Emperor Aurelian in the 3rd century A.C.

In the pre-Christian days, various mid-winter festivals were held through out the Roman Empire in conjunction with the winter solstice, when the day becomes the shortest.

The pagans had the superstitious belief that the sun would go down, with the day becoming shorter and shorter, and would never come back if something ritualistic was not done.

So they had the worshipping of the ‘Sun god’ or the feast of unconquerable sun, and celebrated the beginning of the return of the sun. They had added the Persian god Mithras to the celebration, since he was said to have been born on 25th December.

When Christianity became the religion of the Roman Empire, the Church could not suppress or stamp out the performance of these pagan festivals. As it is said, ‘If you cannot beat them, join them.’

They started joining the pagan and heathen celebrations in to Christianity.

By the year 336 A.C, the festival was christianised by calling it as the birthday of ‘the Son of Righteousness.’ Thus, the ‘festival of the sun’ became the ‘festival of the Son.’

The Roman date fell with a season of rejoicing initiated with Saturnalia on December 17th, and the same merrymaking continued to characterize the Christian feast.

It got in to the Western or Roman Church by the 4th century A.C, and the practice spread widely, so that most part of the Christian world observed the new festival by the end of the 4th century.

It was adopted in Alexandria by about 430 A.C. In Jerusalem, it was still unknown in the 5th century A.C; but by that time the December feast had been already adopted elsewhere in the east.

Some Christian preachers of the west and near east protested against the unseemly frivolity with which Christ’s birthday was celebrated, while Christians of Mesopotamia accused their western brethren of ‘idolatry and sun worship’, for adopting this pagan festival as Christian.

English Puritans (the reformist groups discontented with the religious settlement of the Church of England), sought to curtail Christmas festivity by an act of parliament in 1644, but the feast again became popular and remained so to the present.

WHEN WAS JESUS 'TRULY BORN' ? A 'LATEST' RESEARCH

According to an article published in India 's Largest Circulated English Daily Newspaper, it says that JESUS WAS BORN ON 17 th JUNE and NOT ON 25 th DECEMBER . According to a report in Daily Telegraph, Deve Reneke, an Australian Astronomer says that complex charting software has allowed the astronomer to map the night sky as it would have appeared more than two thousand years ago. Reneke said, that it is like a digital map where one can move forward in time as well as backward. As such, with this latest scientifically advanced technological application, Reneke claims that Jesus was born on 17 th June and not on 25 th December . Source: Times of India : Hyderabad : Pg: 12, D/ 09.Dec.2008.Tue . A similar news has been reported in yet another popular daily English Newspaper in India , that is, Deccan Chronicle : Hyderabad : Pg: 14, D/ 09.Dec.2008.Tue .

According to another article published in Times of India :Hyderabad: Pg: 20, D/ 11.Dec.2007.Tue , entitled: CHRISTMAS – A Candid History by Bruce David Forbes , a Professor of Religious Studies, Morningside College, Sioux, Iowa, U.S.A. , says that Christmas was not celebrated till 300 [three hundred] years after Jesus Christ [ Wy Cliff's commentary of Bible also agrees to this claim ] . He says that,CHRISTMAS is actually a transformation of a pagan festival [ Halloween ] celebrated by pagans during winter, when they lit their homes in winter nights. He says that, CHRISTMAS TREE was invented by Germans and promoted by Queen Victoria of England during the 19 th Century Christian era. He says that,SANTA CLAUS is a misnomer of Saint Nicholas changed to an old plump man with gifts, wearing red clothes, a cap, and a white beard was introduced to the world in this form for the first time in the U.S.A. , in 1940s & 1950s in an advertisement of the Coca Cola Company , U.S.A. He says that, CHRISTMAS BANNED by PURITANS of England during the 1600s.

WAS JESUS CHRIST REALLY BORN ON DECEMBER 25TH?

As mentioned earlier there is no evidence in the Bible or any authoritative Christian source to establish 25th December as the birthday of Jesus Christ (Pbuh). Earlier the nativity was celebrated by the Eastern Church on January 6, often united to the celebration of Jesus Baptism. The Armenian Church celebrates the festival of the birth and baptism on January 6th.

The Dictionary of Living Religions reports:

“Speculation on the birth date of Jesus is as old as Clement of Alexandria…he suggested May 20. But the actual date remains unknown.”

There are evidences in the Holy Quran as well as the New Testament, which enables us to derive that Jesus Christ (Pbuh) was born in the Summer and not in the Winter.

HOLY QURAN (19:25):

“And shake towards thyself the trunk of the palm-tree: It will let fall fresh ripe dates upon thee.”

“So eat and drink and cool (thine) eye.”

Here Allah (SWT), tells Mary (Pbuh), close to the time of her delivering Jesus Christ (Pbuh), to have the ripe dates as food and we all know very well that ripe dates would be available on palm trees only in Summer and not in Winter.

Similarly in the New Testament in the book of Luke (2:8-11):

And there were in the same country shepherds abiding in the field, keeping watch over their flock by night.

Shepherds would not spend the nights in the open watching their sheep in the winter in an area like Palestine were Winter is too cold, so it has to be in Summer.

The WyCliffe Bible Commentary had this to say about the birth of Jesus Christ:

“The exact date of Jesus birth is unknown; the legendry (mythical) date of December 25 cannot be tracked back further than the fourth century.”

HOW ABOUT THE CHRISTMAS TREE THEN?

When Christianity spread northward in to Europe, the pagans had their great ‘Yule festival’. The pagan custom of the tree decorations were absorbed in to Christianity once again.

In the Bible, in Jeremiah (10:1-4):

Hear ye the word which the LORD speaketh unto you, O house of Israel:

Thus saith the LORD, Learn not the way of the heathen, and be not dismayed at the signs of heaven; for the heathen are dismayed at them.

For the customs of the people are vain: for one cutteth a tree out of the forest, the work of the hands of the workman, with the axe.

They deck it with silver and with gold; they fasten it with nails and with hammers, that it, move not.

The above verses from the Christian Bible clearly indicates that the Christmas tree was earlier a pagan and heathen practice, later on accommodated in to Christianity. There are so many pagan stories and beliefs connected with this Christmas tree, and Santa Claus, which I do not want to elaborate here. You may find it in detail in the 2nd article named Christmas tree.

WHAT ABOUT SANTA CLAUS AND HIS LOVELY GIFTS?

Here we have a character, who is believed to have come from the North pole and in one night he is able to personally distribute gifts to children all over the world. Children are informed by the Parents, that if they behave good, Santa Claus would reward them with a gift. How can Santa Claus know which child is good and which is bad. The quality of Almighty God is attributed to him- the Knowledge of the unseen. Only Almighty God know what is in people’s heart and mind. Hence this is clean SHIRK. Secondly Parents are lying to children by saying that the reward for being good is from Santa Claus and not from Almighty God. Children are taught to fear a fictious man instead of God.

WHAT IS THE HUKUM OR SHARIA ON CHRISTMAS? - THE MUSLIM VIEW:

The Muslims do not deny the right of Christians to have a festival.

As the Prophet (Pbuh) said:

“Every people has it’s festival, and this is our festival”. Further he said; “Allah has given you something better instead of them; Yawm al-Duhaa and Yawm al-Fitr.” (Reported by Abu Dawood).

However the Muslims have every right and reason to ask some simple questions to this.

1. How can you choose any day and celebrate as a ‘religious’ festival, if:

- the date of Jesus’ birth itself is not known?

- there is no evidence in the Bible for the practice of celebrating a birthday?

- There is no evidence in the Bible that the celebration has any relation with Jesus?

2. If you believe that the Bible is the word of God and guidance from Him, then bring the evidence from this book, and prove that whatever you are doing has a sound basis or record.

3. Why do you celebrate Christmas when paganism or polytheism lies at the very root of Christmas? It is a well established fact that a popular feast of pagans, heathens, and polytheists was adopted and absorbed in Christianity.

4. Some Christians may say: Is there anything wrong with giving gifts, or with good will, pleasant feelings, cheerfulness, and enjoyment of a nice family holiday and talk about Jesus Christ at Christmas?

It is worth to quote Mr. Joseph W. Tkach, the Editor-in-Chief of a world renowned Christian Magazine “The Plain Truth”(in the Nov/Dec 1991 issue), who says that apparently there is nothing wrong in it, but as he writes:

“A pagan festival and the worship of the true God do not mix. The prophets constantly warned ancient Israel against polytheistic practices and for good reason. God is the sovereign and supreme Lord of all creation. The gods of the nations were not. To mix polytheistic practices with the worship of God is the highest disrespect and dishonor to Him. Why? Because it lowers God to the level of the weak, worthless and false.”

“Some say, ‘Let’s get Christ back in to Christmas.’ I understand their point and definitely respect their motives. Yet shouldn’t we rather be saying: ‘Let’s get Christ out of Christmas’?”

“Would any of us choose a pagan temple as the ideal place to worship god? Yet we have chosen to worship Christ on the very day and festival the pagans worshipped some of their gods. It was originally chosen because so many pagans were worshipping their gods on it- and the pagan trimmings persist to this day. It is time that Christians seriously reconsider the yearly practice that taints the worship of Christ with the pagan birthday of the ‘invincible sun.’”

He concludes with verses from the Bible to defend his argument:

2Corinthians(6:14-17):

Be ye not unequally yoked together with unbelievers: for what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath light with darkness?

And what concord hath Christ with Belial? or what part hath he that believeth with an infidel?

And what agreement hath the temple of God with idols? for ye are the temple of the living God; as God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in them; and I will be their God, and they shall be my people.

Wherefore come out from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord,

In the Islamic concept, any deficiency in the pure monotheistic attitude is called SHIRK, and it is the greatest and unpardonable sin. So Muslims can never join paganism, and therefore to take part in such celebration is completely unacceptable and forbidden (HARAM) in Islam as we are commemorating and joining hands with them in committing Shirk when we congratulate them, greet them, or take part in their celebrations.

Therefore congratulating (greeting) them for Christmas or any other religious occasion is considered by all Muslim Scholars to be HARAM (unlawful and sinful) because it is a sign of approval and acceptance of their belief and practice which is nothing but KUFR AND SHIRK. As a true Muslim you would not do what displeases Allah (SWT), and would not approve of Shirk or Kufr or give any sign of approval for any of it’s practices. Hence a Muslim should not congratulate Christians on Christmas or any of their religious occasions. Muslims should refrain from facilitating or selling any goods or services intended for such use.

ALLAH (SWT) says in the HOLY QURAN (39:7):

If you blaspheme (reject or deny Allah), truly Allah hath no need of you; but He liketh not ingratitude from his servants: If ye are grateful, He is pleased with you.

HOLY QURAN (5:2)

“Cooperate with one another in righteous and piety (in what is good and pious), but cooperate ye not in sin and rancour (in what is sinful and wicked).”

Moreover Umar ibn al-Khattab said:

“Avoid the enemies of Allah on their festivals. Do not enter upoun their churches or take part in their celebrations on their feast days, for the WRATH of ALLAH is descending on them.”

It was also reported with a saheeh isnad from Abu Usaamah: Awn told us from Abdullah ibn- Amr;

“Whoever lives in the land of non-Arabs and celebrates their New Year and festivals, and imitates them until he dies in that state, will be gathered with them on the Day of Resurrection.”

Some Christians may say that this celebration is nothing but an expression of devotion and love for Jesus. They may be reminded of what Jesus himself is reported to have explained about the meaning of ‘belief in him’ and ‘love for him.’

THE MEANING OF ‘BELIEF IN JESUS’:

John (14:12):

Verily, Verily, I say unto you, he that believes on me, the works that I do shall he do also.

THE MEANING OF ‘LOVE FOR JESUS’:

John (14:21):

He that has my commandments, and keeps them, he it is that loves me; and he that loves me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him. ….

John (15:10):

If ye keep my commandments, ye shall abide by my love; even as I have kept my Father’s commandments, and abide in His love.

JESUS’S MESSAGE TO THE CHRISTIANS:

Mathew (7:21-23):

Not everyone who says unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter the kingdom of heaven; but he that does the will of my Father which is in heaven.

Many will say to me on that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?

And then I will profess unto them, I never knew you; depart from me, ye that work inequity.

WHAT IS WRONG THEN IN EATING THOSE LOVELY DELICIOUS CAKES AT LEAST?

ALLAH (SWT) says in the Holy Quran (5:3):

“Forbidden to you (for food) are: dead meat, blood, the flesh of swine, and that on which any other names besides Allah hath been invoked.”

In the above verse Allah has forbidden to us in food; dead meat, blood, flesh of swine and any food on which any other names besides Allah is invoked.

Here the delicious Christmas cake falls on the fourth category which is forbidden in higher level than the rest three, meaning that it is worse than having dead meat, blood and flesh of swine.

May Allah(SWT) guide us all on the straight path. Amen.

Is it permissible for muslims to congratulate each other and give duaa on the new year based on the Gregorian calendar without the intention of celebrating it ?

It is not permissible for the Muslims to exchange greetings on the occasion of the Gregorian New Year, and it is not permissible for them to celebrate it, because both of these matters involve imitation of the kuffaar, and we have been forbidden to do that.

The Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “Whoever imitates a people is one of them.” Narrated by AbuDawood, 4031; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh Sunan AbiDawood

Moreover, offering greetings on this day that comes back each year comes under the heading of celebrating it and taking it as a festival, which is also forbidden.

And Allah knows best.

The celebration of the new year on January 1st is a relatively new phenomenon. The earliest recording of a new year celebration is believed to have been in Mesopotamia, c. 2000 B.C. and was celebrated around the time of the vernal equinox, in mid-March. A variety of other dates tied to the seasons were also used by various ancient cultures. The Egyptians, Phoenicians, and Persians began their new year with the fall equinox, and the Greeks celebrated it on the winter solstice.

Early Roman Calendar: March 1st Rings in the New Year

The early Roman calendar designated March 1 as the new year. The calendar had just ten months, beginning with March. That the new year once began with the month of March is still reflected in some of the names of the months. September through December, our ninth through twelfth months, were originally positioned as the seventh through tenth months (septem is Latin for "seven," octo is "eight," novem is "nine," and decem is "ten."

January Joins the Calendar

The first time the new year was celebrated on January 1st was in Rome in 153 B.C. (In fact, the month of January did not even exist until around 700 B.C., when the second king of Rome, Numa Pontilius, added the months of January and February.) The new year was moved from March to January because that was the beginning of the civil year, the month that the two newly elected Roman consuls—the highest officials in the Roman republic—began their one-year tenure. But this new year date was not always strictly and widely observed, and the new year was still sometimes celebrated on March 1.

Julian Calendar: January 1st Officially Instituted as the New Year

In 46 B.C. Julius Caesar introduced a new, solar-based calendar that was a vast improvement on the ancient Roman calendar, which was a lunar system that had become wildly inaccurate over the years. The Julian calendar decreed that the new year would occur with January 1, and within the Roman world, January 1 became the consistently observed start of the new year.

Middle Ages: January 1st Abolished

In medieval Europe, however, the celebrations accompanying the new year were considered pagan and unchristian like, and in 567 the Council of Tours abolished January 1 as the beginning of the year. At various times and in various places throughout medieval Christian Europe, the new year was celebrated on Dec. 25, the birth of Jesus; March 1; March 25, the Feast of the Annunciation; and Easter.

Gregorian Calendar: January 1st Restored

In 1582, the Gregorian calendar reform restored January 1 as new year's day. Although most Catholic countries adopted the Gregorian calendar almost immediately, it was only gradually adopted among Protestant countries. The British, for example, did not adopt the reformed calendar until 1752. Until then, the British Empire —and their American colonies— still celebrated the new year in March.

Date of the Prophet’s birth and death

Firstly: The biographers and historians differed concerning the day and month of the birth of the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him). This is something for which there is good reason, as it was not known what status this newborn would achieve; his situation was like that of any other newborn. Hence no one can state with certainty the date of his birth (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him).

Dr. Muhammad at-Tayyib an-Najjaar (may Allah have mercy on him) said: Perhaps the reason for this difference of opinion is that when he was born, no one expected that he would attend such a status. For that reason, he did not live in the spotlight from the beginning of his life. When Allah decreed that the Messenger (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) should begin to convey His message forty years after he was born, people began to seek out whatever memories they had about this Prophet, and they asked one another about every detail of his life. They were helped in that by what the Messenger (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) himself narrated about incidents that he had experienced from his birth, as well as the reports narrated by his Companions and those who had also gone through those events with him.

At that time the Muslims began to collect everything that they had heard about the life story of their Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) in order to transmit it to the people down throughout the ages

Al-Qawl al-Mubeen fi Seerat Sayyid al-Mursaleen, p. 78

Secondly: Among the matters on which there is consensus with regard to his birth (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) is the definition of the year and the day.

1. With regard to the year: It was the Year of the Elephant. Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allah have mercy on him) said:

There is no difference of opinion concerning the fact that he (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) was born in Makkah, and that his birth was in the Year of the Elephant.

Zaad al-Ma‘aad fi Hadiy Khayr al-‘Ibaad, 1/76

Muhammad ibn Yoosuf as-Saalihi (may Allah have mercy on him) said:

Ibn Ishaaq (may Allah have mercy on him) said: (It was) the Year of the Elephant.

Ibn Katheer said: This is the well-known view of the majority.

Ibraaheem ibn al-Mundhir al-Hizaami, the Shaykh of al-Bukhaari, said: This is the opinion concerning which none of the scholars has any doubt. Khaleefah ibn Khayyaat, Ibn al-Jazzaar, Ibn Dihyah, Ibn al-Jawzi and Ibn al-Qayyim went further and narrated that there was consensus on this matter.

Subul al-Huda wa’r-Rashaad fi Seerat Khayr al-‘Ibaad, 1/334, 335

Dr. Akram Diya’ al-‘Umari (may Allah guide him) said:

In fact the reports that say otherwise all have flawed isnaads; they suggest that he was born ten years, or twenty-three years, or forty years, after the Year of the Elephant. But the majority of scholars are of the view that he was born in the Year of the Elephant. This is supported by the modern study undertaken by both Muslim and Orientalist researchers who stated that the Year of the Elephant corresponds to the year 570 CE or 571 CE.

As-Seerah an-Nabawiyyah as-Saheehah, 1/97

2. With regard to the day:

It was a Monday. He (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) was born on a Monday, his mission began on a Monday and he died on a Monday.

It was narrated that Abu Qataadah al-Ansaari (may Allah have mercy on him) said: The Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) was asked about fasting on Mondays and he said: “That is a day on which I was born and on it my mission began – or Revelation came to me.”

Narrated by Muslim, 1162.

Ibn Katheer (may Allah have mercy on him) said:

Those who say that he was born on Friday 17^th Rabee‘ al-Awwal were mistaken.

This was narrated by al-Haafiz Ibn Dihyah from what he read [?] of the bookI‘laam ar-Wara bi A‘laam al-Huda by one of the Shi‘ah. Then Ibn Dihyan stated why it was da‘eef (weak), and it deserves to be classed as da‘eef because it is contrary to the text.